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    I am contemplating divorce after separation from my wife for over two years, without any written agreement. If I have to send some money to support my parents in paying doctors' fees, will that be considered wrongful alienation of my assets or improper transferring property to a third party?
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    No. Had you transferred assets or money to your parents just prior to your separation, a judge may have
    viewed such a transfer with suspicion as an attempt to divert assets that should properly have been split 50:50 with
    her. However, two years after separation is perfectly within your rights to do as you wish with your own assets, so
    long as you report your income accurately when calculating it for child/spousal support. Also report the state of
    your assets and liabilities accurately as they existed on the date of separation and the date of marriage to calculate
    what, if any, "equalization payment" or property split you owe each other. But the calculation is based upon the
    value of your respective net worth positions as of the date of separation, not now. Moreover, if you had legitimate
    reasons for transferring money to your parents to support them even just before the date of separation, and you
    could prove that you were not doing so to divert assets away from your wife's right to an equal split of property,
    then a court would likely excuse your actions in any event.

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